European Year 2007 - Equality and Non-Discrimination
Alert, Alert, Alert
European Year 2007 is about Equality and Non-Discrimination
How can you permeate this idea down to national Member State level?
Ideas:
Rename Member States to Member "Countries" - as that is the truth of the matter. Who admits to being a "state"!!!
Restore "Justice" as an ideology in England & Wales - why?
Lord Woolf put in place via the Access to Justice Act 1999 - expedition, economy, proportionality and "contemporary equality" (see academic theory in jurisprudence post).
He usurped traditional equality, fairness, impartiality and justice in so doing.
In Christian values only a judge can place the parties before him/her as "equal before the law".
Just as Pontius Pilate judged christ - so judges judge the parties before them. It could be argued - probably via the Bible (Biblical references to Justice and Law) - that Judges are people appointed before God because they have the capacity to do the Lords Prayer "Thy kingdom come when thy will be done, in heaven as on earth. Equality is therefore fundamental to being a judge - especially in a Christian democracy, albeit it would apply to Jews and Muslims who claim descent from the same mono god via Abraham and presumably there legal systems.
Therefore, why did Lord Woolf want to "avoid litigation whenever possible", when litigation is the only process in a Christian democracy that can make the parties equal before a judge?
Is he anti-christian? Does he not understand why he was a judge? Has he been corrupted in some way and by whom? Is he a sleeper with a devious purpose? How come so many judges supported him? How come so many lawyers and barristers did not see through his proposals and, if they did, why did they not rise up against him? Is there a masterplan in operation which puts in place a "regime" in law for the 21st century to benefit whom? Is it merely a deficiency or lack of intellect at judicial level? Why did the Prime Minister "duck" when he was informed of the fundamental flaw as early as 1997 prior to implementation in 1999? Why has the situation continued to exist at today's date via Parliament? Why has no one been made accountable and responsible via Parliament?
Is 2007 - the year of Equality and Non-discrimination going to permeate within the Department of Constitutional Affairs!!!
European Year 2007 is about Equality and Non-Discrimination
How can you permeate this idea down to national Member State level?
Ideas:
Rename Member States to Member "Countries" - as that is the truth of the matter. Who admits to being a "state"!!!
Restore "Justice" as an ideology in England & Wales - why?
Lord Woolf put in place via the Access to Justice Act 1999 - expedition, economy, proportionality and "contemporary equality" (see academic theory in jurisprudence post).
He usurped traditional equality, fairness, impartiality and justice in so doing.
In Christian values only a judge can place the parties before him/her as "equal before the law".
Just as Pontius Pilate judged christ - so judges judge the parties before them. It could be argued - probably via the Bible (Biblical references to Justice and Law) - that Judges are people appointed before God because they have the capacity to do the Lords Prayer "Thy kingdom come when thy will be done, in heaven as on earth. Equality is therefore fundamental to being a judge - especially in a Christian democracy, albeit it would apply to Jews and Muslims who claim descent from the same mono god via Abraham and presumably there legal systems.
Therefore, why did Lord Woolf want to "avoid litigation whenever possible", when litigation is the only process in a Christian democracy that can make the parties equal before a judge?
Is he anti-christian? Does he not understand why he was a judge? Has he been corrupted in some way and by whom? Is he a sleeper with a devious purpose? How come so many judges supported him? How come so many lawyers and barristers did not see through his proposals and, if they did, why did they not rise up against him? Is there a masterplan in operation which puts in place a "regime" in law for the 21st century to benefit whom? Is it merely a deficiency or lack of intellect at judicial level? Why did the Prime Minister "duck" when he was informed of the fundamental flaw as early as 1997 prior to implementation in 1999? Why has the situation continued to exist at today's date via Parliament? Why has no one been made accountable and responsible via Parliament?
Is 2007 - the year of Equality and Non-discrimination going to permeate within the Department of Constitutional Affairs!!!
posted by Lesley McDade at 5:27 pm
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